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Hello, by studiyng Al's course I came across a doubt that I can´t solve myself. When entering on a bull trend, where the probability is about 60% or more for upside prices, if I enter in a high 2 for example or something that is not within the spike that lead to the bull trend, won't my target be always less than a 1:1 ?
My thought is, the spike will lead to a MM up and normally that is the largest MM, so if I enter after the bull spike is formed in some other setup that has a price that surpasses the high of the bull spike, my target will be less than 1:1 because the stop placement must be below a Major Low.
The only resulotions that I came across is to use a tight stop witch will drop imensely the probability (also the risk), or to have a 70-80% rate of sucess. I know that I can also be profitable by using the actual risk for a 2:1 RR, but that is the minimum target.
Am I thinkg right or is there anything that I didn't understand?